[Hank Kerchief]

"It DOES, therefore depend on man's desire or effort (the act of choosing), not on God's mercy."

I am convinced you have a reading comprehension problem, since I said nothing like that at all.

You evidently believe there is no difference whatsoever between those who are saved and those who are not. Is that correct? If this is not correct, please tell us what difference there will be in those who are saved from those who are not.

Hank

[Matchett-PI]

"I am convinced you have a reading comprehension problem, since I said nothing like that -- ( "It [election] DOES, therefore depend on man's desire or effort (the act of choosing), not on God's mercy.") -- at all."

You didn't? Maybe I'm confusing you with someone else. Help me out here, please. Answer this question, then ONLY with a yes or a no:

Does God have the perogative as the self-proclaimed, "master potter", to make out of the same lump of clay (all of mankind) some individuals for noble purposes, and some for common use as he says in Romans 9:21? Or do you think he doesn't claim that perogative over all peoples?