John 1:14 And the Word [Jesus] was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
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These are the same greek expressions. Your logic would conclude that Stephen should be added to the list with Mary as those exempted from the taint of Original Sin.
QUESTION: What does full of grace mean in these two verses that makes sense to say of BOTH Stephen and Jesus? Surely it is not sinlessness, for that only pertains to Jesus. Answer this, and I think the statement of Gabriel will be clear to you.
Best wishes, Steve
I'm glad you brought this up. Look at the whole quote here:
Acts 6:8 And Stephen, full of grace and power, wrought great wonders and signs among the people.
However you posted it this way:
And Stephen, full of grace and power, wrought great wonders and signs among the people.
Grace and power is not Grace.
(Sorry about the delay. I was busy and coouldn't get back here until now)
Plus, one was the message of God delivered by the Angel Gabriel.