He goes on to say, "These Churchmen were not literalistic; drew no essential distinction between Israel and the Church; did not have a Dispensational view of
history; . . . did not hold to imminency and pretribulationism; and their eschatological chronology was not synonymous with Dispensationalism's." [Boyd, Ibid.] Mr. Boyd also laments the fact that, while Rylie has now changed his view regarding the historical confirmation of "Pre-Millenialism", he has not corrected his literary works to reflect this. This was not on the link you gave me, where did you get if from?