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Although Abraham was not condemned for his little sojourn with polygamy, his descendants were cursed forever because of it. Had Abraham trusted God's promise that his 80 year old wife Sarah would bear him a son, he would not have gone out of his way to help God out in fulfilling this prophecy by sleeping with Haggar. As a result Abraham had a son Ishmael, and his descendants have been a thorn in the side of Issac's Godly and elect lineage ever since.

Where in the Bible, the Book of Mormon or in real life has polygamy ever been practiced sucessfully?

BTW doesn't the Bible state that a Bishop must be the husband of one wife? If the early Mormon bishops were polygamists, weren't they violating this directive?

Thanks.

Although Abraham was not condemned for his little sojourn with polygamy, his descendants were cursed forever because of it. Had Abraham trusted God's promise that his 80 year old wife Sarah would bear him a son, he would not have gone out of his way to help God out in fulfilling this prophecy by sleeping with Haggar.

I have to admit that I am not familiar with this (his descendants being cursed) being in the Bible. It certainly would appear that a great amount of conflict in the world is caused by this, but I couldn't find a scripture that directly stated the curse. Galatians 4:22-31 makes this same observation of conflict also, but doesn't seem to call it a curse. And Gen 16:12 seems more a prophecy than a curse.

As for being condemned, wasn't it just one verse from when the child with Hagar was born and when the Lord appeared to Abram and walked with him, and makes a covenant with him? Doesn't sound like anything close to condemnation.

Besides, God's promise made in Gen 15:4 was that Abram would have an heir out of his own bowels, and not an heir from his servants. Hagar shows up in Gen 16. The promise that the now-Abraham received that the now-Sarah would have children was made in Gen 17. The timeline seem funny for it to be a curse.

Doesn't the Bible state that a Bishop must be the husband of one wife? If the early Mormon bishops were polygamists, weren't they violating this directive?

Good question. Paul did give Timothy and Titus some instructions regarding the church organization. And he did indicate that a Bishop should be married. But did he say in either place that a Bishop must be the husband of only one wife. It would be hard to say, with what we know, if Paul meant he must have only one wife, or only that he must be married.

Sounds like we may have to agree to disagree on this one.