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To: OLD REGGIE
Re 49182

Thanks. I looked for this but couldn't find it.

You're welcome.

Now all you have to do is explain the correspondence between "sacramentally present" and "undivided body and blood".

Christ is present. Fully present. If this is the case, how could He be fully present without His Blood?

SD

49,313 posted on 04/29/2003 6:33:55 AM PDT by SoothingDave (It might behoove me to be heaved)
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To: OLD REGGIE
Re 49185

Dave's point was that the Matthew 10:6 reference to "The House of Israel" specifically excluded the 10 lost tribes.

No, my point was that this reference was not solely a reference to the lost (scattered) tribes. It is to be understood as a reference to all who descended from Abraham.

Practically and historically speaking, it was a commission to preach to all of those in the geographical area called "Israel" or whatever you wish to call it. In the immediate area where primarily the two tribes of Judah and Benjamin had remained.

The point being that, before the Resurrection, the Apostles did not go out beyodn their country. They did not go to Japan or India or Babylon to search out the lost tribes, they preached to the lost sheep at home.

Then, after the Resurrection, Jesus told all of the Apostles to go out to the nations. There they might encounter members of the lost tribes. The idea that this passage limits the original Apostles to only preaching to the lost tribes of Israel is simply unsupported.

SD

49,316 posted on 04/29/2003 6:38:37 AM PDT by SoothingDave (It might behoove me to be heaved)
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