[OLD REGGIE]

Despite his confusion on the tribes issue, the psalm SD quoted did support his point. There are many references to "house of Israel" that refer to all of Israel, not only the northern Kingdom (which in fairness could be construed in that usage as referring to the lost tribes).

Dave's point was that the Matthew 10:6 reference to "The House of Israel" specifically excluded the 10 lost tribes.

[trad_anglican]

Dave's point was that the Matthew 10:6 reference to "The House of Israel" specifically excluded the 10 lost tribes.

Wouldn't Matthew 10:5 support that interpretation? It would be difficult to seek out the lost tribes while not going into the way of the Gentiles, wouldn't it?

Sorry to snipe and run, but I gotta go.