[malakhi]

Those who want to identify the Babylon of 1 Peter with Rome must explain why the Bablyon of Revelation does not refer to Rome.

Not exactly. They are two different books.

Well, that's an explanation, isn't it? ;o)

It is certainly possible to claim that the terms were used independent of each other, and for different purposes.

[SoothingDave]

Well, that's an explanation, isn't it? ;o)

You've got me there.

It is certainly possible to claim that the terms were used independent of each other, and for different purposes.

Yes. And (as I said) that "Rome" would not become a synonym for the Church until after the Empire fell out of influence.

SD