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To: malakhi
Got an e-mail from a lurker who makes a great point about the belief in the sinless nature of Mary.

IF the lurker wants an answer, let him post it himself!

(Oh, that's right, you're the pugnacious one.)

Note from the verse from Leviticus that one of the doves is a "sin offering", and that it is "for her". Whatever else one might say about Mary, the gospel does record that she did present a sin offering for herself.

The answer is simply that Mary followed the Law, as any person obedient to God did.

Is it this "lurkers" position (or yours) that childbirth is a sin which requires atonement? OR is it simply a ritual cleansing?

SD

47,707 posted on 04/21/2003 10:28:56 AM PDT by SoothingDave
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To: SoothingDave
IF the lurker wants an answer, let him post it himself!

According to his e-mail,

I am a long time lurker on the thread (almost since the beginning) and have seen many "discussions" repeat themselves. I usually peak on breaks at work so I don't post. The current discussion about the sinless nature of Mary reminded me of something I read recently that I have never seen discussed on this issue...

So I assume my mystery correspondent is someone who is able to lurk, but not post.

Is it this "lurkers" position (or yours) that childbirth is a sin which requires atonement? OR is it simply a ritual cleansing?

Perhaps our lurker friend can e-mail me his reply, and I can post it. From the Jewish perspective, sin offerings are for "unintentional" sins (call it "venial" vs. "mortal" sin). As you note, the passage does include the element of ritual cleansing.

47,762 posted on 04/21/2003 11:54:38 AM PDT by malakhi (fundamentalist unitarian)
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