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To: malakhi; SoothingDave; Invincibly Ignorant; biblewonk; CindyDawg; All
Note from the verse from Leviticus that one of the doves is a "sin offering", and that it is "for her". Whatever else one might say about Mary, the gospel does record that she did present a sin offering for herself.

Nice try. :)

You remember that when the Lord Jesus was born, his mother brought turtle-doves because the poor could bring them as an offering. She had to have an offering because she was a sinner; she was not sinless. She brought an offering. But there was no offering for the Lord Jesus. No offering was ever made for Jesus or by Jesus. He is the sinless One. He was the offering for the sin of the world. He is the Lamb of God.

Luke:2 [21] And when eight days were fulfilled for circumcising him, his name was called JESUS, which was so called by the angel before he was conceived in the womb.

[22] And when the days of their purification according to the law of Moses were fulfilled, they brought him up to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord

[23] (as it is written in the law of the Lord, Every male that openeth the womb shall be called holy to the Lord),

[24] and to offer a sacrifice according to that which is said in the law of the Lord, A pair of turtledoves, or two young pigeons.

[25] And behold, there was a man in Jerusalem, whose name was Simeon; and this man was righteous and devout, looking for the consolation of Israel: and the Holy Spirit was upon him.

[26] And it had been revealed unto him by the Holy Spirit, that he should not see death, before he had seen the Lord’s Christ.

[27] And he came in the Spirit into the temple: and when the parents brought in the child Jesus, that they might do concerning him after the custom of the law,

BigMack

47,703 posted on 04/21/2003 10:22:56 AM PDT by PayNoAttentionManBehindCurtain
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To: PayNoAttentionManBehindCurtain
Nice catch about the turledoves Mack. I'm impressed. And you didn't even need a cut and paste this time. :-)
47,705 posted on 04/21/2003 10:25:32 AM PDT by Invincibly Ignorant
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To: PayNoAttentionManBehindCurtain
She had to have an offering because she was a sinner; she was not sinless.

This is precisely the point our lurker friend was trying to make. Based upon my reading of the passage from Leviticus, I don't think it even applies to the infant. It says "one burnt offering and one sin offering ... for her" -- meaning the mother.

47,751 posted on 04/21/2003 11:45:55 AM PDT by malakhi (fundamentalist unitarian)
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