To: SoothingDave; newgeezer; biblewonk
In doing so, explain why and how the phrase "born of" is used to indicate genetic inferitance and not the process of expelling a child from one's womb. Furthermore, assuming your bizarre premise, what does it mean for Jesus to be "made of a woman"? If anything, I'd think "born of" could, in a stretch, mean Mary as a "surrogate mother". Made of sounds even more like Jesus had some sort of genetic relationship to Mary. Which is exactly the opposite of what newgeezer and biblewonk say the words imply.
46,820 posted on
04/15/2003 8:37:35 AM PDT by
malakhi
(fundamentalist unitarian)
To: malakhi; biblewonk; newgeezer
Made of sounds even more like Jesus had some sort of genetic relationship to Mary. Which is exactly the opposite of what newgeezer and biblewonk say the words imply. Yep. And it is strange to talk of a man being "made of a woman." If this merely meant that Jesus was human, but from some new line straight out of heaven, wouldn't the inclusive "man" be used?
And if not Mary, then what "woman" was he "made" of?
SD
To: malakhi; biblewonk; SoothingDave
If anything, I'd think "born of" could, in a stretch, mean Mary as a "surrogate mother". Made of sounds even more like Jesus had some sort of genetic relationship to Mary. Which is exactly the opposite of what newgeezer and biblewonk say the words imply.That's understandable. It proves there is little benefit to looking at the words in a vacuum, apart from the context of Scripture.
46,830 posted on
04/15/2003 8:47:32 AM PDT by
newgeezer
(fundamentalist, regarding the Constitution AND the Holy Bible)
To: malakhi
Didn't
this do anything for "made" vs. "born"?
Since no one replied, I'd inferred some sort of victory from that silence. ;-)
46,859 posted on
04/15/2003 9:31:03 AM PDT by
newgeezer
(fundamentalist, regarding the Constitution AND the Holy Bible)
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