[fidelis]

“No, there is no punctuation in the original Hebrew”
I’m afraid you’ll have to do better than that, since there are two subjects, two objects, two verbs, so there are clearly two sentences giving two prohibitions even if we didn’t have the punctuation to clue us in on that.

That would be true in contemporary rules of grammar, but in what is essentially one large run-on sentence in an ancient text, it is not so clear-cut and translators do the best they can. Without punctuation in the original, it is not at all certain that what we have here is two sentences.

[Boogieman]

“...but in what is essentially one large run-on sentence in an ancient text, it is not so clear-cut and translators do the best they can”

Using this argument, I can say every book of the Bible is a “large run-on sentence” that we can have no hope of interpreting or understanding. But that would be foolish, and obviously an argument simply constructed to avoid a plain reading of the text and what that plain reading would tell us.