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To: aMorePerfectUnion
Just last week, a Catholic guy was accusing Luther of taking whole books out of the Bible. Now he’s adding…

Well I hope you told "Catholic Guy" that officially
it wasn't until 1828 in England they were officially
REmoved or taken out completely of their Bible.

Though much of the internet says "he took them out"
- and maybe did not translate-
many defenders will highlight the fact that Luther
merely "moved" them to the back of the Bible-
As he did not feel the Deuterocanon was inspired by God.
(He, like you, probably believed that the Author of Wisdom
just made up a lucky guess in prophesing the coming of the Son of God...
and his tortured crucifixion.)

Whatever... we're still trying to figure out what authority
Luther had, or who gave him the authority
to move books around like he did.
Small detail, he was a smart guy.

But we should let the "Catholic guy" also know,
while Luther didn't technically "remove" books from the Bible...
in HIS translation of Romans 3-
he, in fact - and with controversy then - ADDED the word "ALONE" in 3:28-
where no translation ever had before.
That was the "ADD" of scripture that you may not have understood
I was explaining to you.

Again, still trying to figure out by what authority
Luther thought he alone, can change the ancient text like that?
God?
Bueller?


437 posted on 10/17/2023 12:16:23 PM PDT by MurphsLaw ("If any man's work shall be burned, shall suffer loss: but he himself shall be saved; yet so by Fire)
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To: MurphsLaw

—> then - ADDED the word “ALONE” in 3:28-

If you translate, you add words - usually italicized for readability and understanding. I know this because I’ve translated (Greek to English) in seminary.

In Greek, as in many languages, a word for word translation, ignores the meaning of passages by leaving out the use of word position for emphasis, verb tenses, etc.

In your example of Romans 3:28, Luther translated by adding a word “alone” in order to convey the meaning of the text in few words.

First, here is the Greek…

27Ποῦ οὖν ἡ καύχησις; ἐξεκλείσθη. διὰ ποίου νόμου; τῶν ἔργων; οὐχί, ἀλλὰ διὰ νόμου πίστεως. 28λογιζόμεθα ‡γὰρ «δικαιοῦσθαι πίστει» ἄνθρωπον χωρὶς ἔργων νόμου.

Here is the KJV TRANSLATION

“Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith. Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.”

Here is a Greek translation that includes the full force of the language.

“ Romans 3:28 (WUESTNT): Where then is the glorying? It was once for all excluded. Through what kind of a law? Of the aforementioned works? Not at all, but through the law of faith, for our reasoned conclusion is that a man is justified by faith apart from works of law.“

Luther’s translation is accurate in fewer words.

Best.


438 posted on 10/17/2023 3:54:18 PM PDT by aMorePerfectUnion (Fraud vitiates everything)
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