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The context in which Jesus made that statement is in addressing religious leaders
by titles, not talking about children calling their fathers *Father*

While your scoffing at the Scriptural content of the Mass is easily overlooked for its foolishness...
your attempt to hijack "context" for your own needs was one straw too many.

THE context...?
Your interpretation?
Just WHO'S CONTEXT are you referring to? Your's? Or someone else's?
Because it's not my context, or 1st century context-
or even Dr. Bergsma's context from comment #21.
You need to reword a statement like that to say...
"The context in which I understand it..."
or "The context I feel this relates to..."
to differentiate between an interpretation or opinion, and not stating a verifiable fact.

And this is not to say that I disagree with your "context" either...-
as Jesus himself refers to dads as "Fathers" often...
But you can't claim a specific context you may have an affinity for...
when there isn't one explicitly referenced in scripture.
Which by the way, some "scholars" claim strong evidence to prove that the "man" - in "Call no man father..."
Is a direct reference to the Roman emperor, who in fact claimed the Deity of "God" in their day.
So context can abound all over...

The problem with your assessment - of that Jesus was "addressing religious leaders"
Is NOT in that verse- and in fact it is something you are adding to scripture.
Now again, that is NOT to say you are incorrect in your interpretation- you could be right-
all I am saying is it means you are making an unverifiable statement-
one that develops from outside of scripture- which btw also goes against your own rules.
If we allow that external analysis as you would like, some can then - in that same method and manner- assume Jesus was (or was not) referring
to what St. Paul (a "religious leader" we would agree) would say later on, in Romans,
"Abraham is the Father of us all"...
"He is our Father - IN the sight of God "
or when he declared
"for in Christ Jesus I became your FATHER through the gospel."
We can also derive from that verse then perhaps,
in the same method you are applying,
that Jesus was not referring to much later on Catholic Priests
who would lead their congregations in The "Our Father" - the Lord's Prayer
together at every Mass- as we give worship to the ONE Father in Heaven.

So I have to ask, since you mentioned you are amazed
at Catholic "rationalizations" on this verse...
When Christ said "Call no man Father on earth, BECAUSE YOU HAVE ONE Father in Heaven...
Are you rationalizing that Catholics Don't understand or know the difference
Between Father Bob down at the Parish Fish Fry in Scranton- and the ONE Almighty Father in Heaven, we worship at every Mass??