In the Gospel of John, Jesus SPECIFICALLY mentioned baptism of water and the Holy Spirit. However, all of those baby boys who were slaughtered by Herod’s decree were not baptized. Does that mean they were not saved? Of course not. Those babies had nobody to present them for baptism because they were murdered. And the Catholic Church celebrates the Feast of the Holy Innocents a few days after Christmas. The Catholic Church recognizes baptism of water, baptism of desire, and baptism of blood. Those babies murdered by Herod received “baptism of blood.” They spilled their blood, which made them martyrs. The thief on the cross was covered by “baptism of desire,” because he asked Jesus for forgiveness. There was no way Jesus or the thief were in a position to come down from their crosses to participate in a baptism.
Jews did not practice baptism as Catholicism does. There is not a word in Scripture about infant baptism and how could they be baptized for forgiveness of sins BEFORE Jesus reached adulthood Himself?
That’s about the strangest argument about baptism that I have ever seen.