Posted on 05/14/2019 12:13:01 PM PDT by fwdude
The Tribulation referred to
1. happened to the believers in the period 69 to 70 AD - when Nero lit on the Christians as a good scapegoat. He also allowed Jews to persecute their fellow Jews (Christians were still a Jewish sect even if many were gentile converts)
2. the fact that as a Christian we have to expect suffering for Christ’s sake.
I also share with you the same worry about myself
I can tell you for a fact that the left-behind rapture is not, to my reading at all in any books of the Bible.
If you have proof to the otherwise why not share it instead of deviating the topic?
The New Jerusalem is the Christian community and the Kingdom of Heaven, Christ's kingdom (remember He said "My kingdom is not of the world") is the Christian community.
"Soon to GOD could be a million years" - that's waffling - Christ talks about happening NOW. He didn't make some mealy-mouthed "gotcha - it was really not 70 Ad, it was 999 AD. Oh wait, it was 1988, oh wait..."
why not provide the proof that it is found in scriptures to back your statement about pre-Trib being in scriptures?
Why waste time trying to educate someone who doesnt seek truth?
instead of admitting it, you are just deviating and deviating
When you seek truth, ping me.
Until then, it is a waste of time.
I’m seeking your answers for why you think pre-Trib is scriptural. Where is your proof?
I think it's because you have no such proof and realize that the pre-Trib is non-biblical
I think it’s because you have no such proof and realize that the pre-Trib is non-biblical
Think whatever you like.
.........
Romans 16:17
Now I beseech you, brethren, mark them which cause divisions and offences contrary to the doctrine which ye have learned; and avoid them.
Titus 3
But avoid foolish controversies, genealogies, arguments, and quarrels about the law, because these things are pointless and worthless.
Reject a divisive man after a first and second admonition, knowing that such a man is corrupt and sinful; he is self-condemned.
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