Funny thing....NOT IN THE FIRST CENTURY!!! Unless you think some major portion of the population was literate
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Concerning the 1st century, one of the favorite sayings of Jesus in rebuttal to his accusers was: Have you not read This not only implied literacy to his opponents, but also to himself and to his apostles whom he taught, for why would he use the phrase against his accusers, if they could turn around and cast his own words in his teeth to point out the illiteracy of his followers? Jesus parable of the unjust steward (Luke 16:6-7) implied literacy in the normal course of business in the Jewish society. This is also borne out in some archeological finds dating to the 12th century BCE where Israelite inscriptions are found on pottery and artifacts showing literacy was not exclusive to the elite.[3] Moreover, just before the Jewish revolt, the high priest Joshua ben Gamala (cir. 64 C.E.) declared that teachers would be appointed in every town of every province throughout Palestine. Their purpose was to provide an education for every male of the age of six or seven and upward. One teacher would serve a community of up to 25 students. A teachers assistant would be added for communities having up to 50 students and for communities having more than 50 students two teachers would be provided.[4]
https://coffeehouseapologetics.wordpress.com/2011/03/13/were-most-ancient-jews-illiterate/
Once again...glarry is wrong on what he thinks he is correct about.
The indications, especially on the evidence of the papyri, are that the literacy rate of Hellenistic and early Roman times was rather high, probably higher than at any period prior to modern times....pages 111-112.
The Jewish child was expected to be able to read the Hebrew Scriptures, to memorize a standard translation in his own language if not Hebrew and to recite certain parts of the liturgy. There was a great emphasis on memorizing Scripture. p 112
People have ALWAYS places a high value on literacy.
And they took advantage of it when they could.