It’s really easy to figure out why Jesus is speaking metaphorically.
If it is so easy to figure out why Jesus is speaking metaphorically, it would seem that there would be evidence that some Christians who lived during the first 1500 years of Christianity believed this to be true.
Are you aware of any such evidence?
Are you aware of any such evidence?
There is no evidence that it was anything other than bread...Just because one person in your Catholic religion makes the claim and others of the same group continue on with the fable certainly isn't evidence of its existence...
1Co_11:26 For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.
1Co_11:27 Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord.
The apostle who gave us the Gentile church says it's bread...No one in your religion got a special revelation from God claiming otherwise...
It doesn’t matter what people believed for 1500 years.
They can believe error for that long.
Witness Hinduism, Confucisim, islam, Zoroastrianism, ..........
What matters is it if contradicts Scripture, which the command to eat blood does.
Forgot to add, that Peter HIMSELF stated in Acts 10 that he had never eaten anything unclean. That would mean that he DID NOT eat flesh and blood at the Last Supper, that he recognized that it was symbolic. If he hadn’t then he would have refused to eat.
If he did indeed think it was literal flesh and blood, then Jesus sinned, Jesus forced others to sin, and Peter is a liar in Acts 10.