Because it doesn’t exist...
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WHAT?
A single Internet search proves you wrong, as well as a single glance at the bookshelf next to me.
Your KJV was drawn entirely from Greek and Hebrew sources, more of which have been discovered since the 1600s; why not use the original source instead of a translation?
Because none of those sources are the 'original' sources...The original sources do not exist...Whatever new sources found since 1600 are not original sources...Every bible out there is a 'translation' and none are original...
But if a bible was translated from the original sources, which one is it, cause I need to get me one of them???