Well, I ask you. If it’s (only) symbolic blood, isn’t drinking it symbolic blasphemy?
Nope. We're told to do this and we're told why we're to do this.
It also helps if one understands the meaning of "poured out" in relation to the OT sacrifice involving blood. It was always poured out and never consumed.
We're told to "do this in remembrance of Me" and that "For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lords death until He comes."
Paul sure doesn't sound like he's echoing the RCC position of transubstantiation.
When we compare the passages from Matthew, Luke and 1 Corinthians against the passage from John 6 a difference is noted.
What is it?