[Mrs. Don-o]

Briefly on my Kindle: I didn't say Luke 1:28 "proved" the Doctrine of the Immaculate Conception. More generally, it *supports* the unanimous Christian veneration (not adoration) of Mary as an exceptionally honorable handmaiden and saint.

Proof in a quasi-mathematical sense is found in Scripture, but rarely: what you get is reasonable inferences from converging lines of evidence, confirmed by the Church which has provided us with both Scripture and its continuous interpretive community.

On NT Greek: if you know your subject, you know that translation always involves choice and, therefore, within limits, interpretation. It aids--- but does not comprise --- hermeneutics or theology.

IV iron transfusion ahead! Yes, I thank you for your kind hopes and would thank you even more for your prayers.

[ealgeone]

Briefly on my Kindle: I didn't say Luke 1:28 "proved" the Doctrine of the Immaculate Conception. More generally, it *supports* the unanimous Christian veneration (not adoration) of Mary as an exceptionally honorable handmaiden and saint.

However the Catholic Encyclopedia Online says "no direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture." You can't even infer from Scripture the Immaculate Conception.

Praying for the IV transfusion!!