Yes and no. Hebrew nouns carry a gender of either masculine or feminine. In the Hebrew the word ה֚וּא (hū) is masculine. This could mean "he" in English but it could also mean "it" in this context since its antecedent, זַרְעָ֑הּ (her seed), is masculine and requires a masculine pronoun. There is no neuter in Hebrew. So if ה֚וּא (hū) is referring to a particular person then is could be translated as "he." But if it is referring to "seed" in general then it should be translated as "it," or even "they" if "seed" is taken to mean all descendants.
Translation is not an exact science and we cannot rely purely on word-for-word translations. This is why there are so many different translations, all attempting to be faithful to the original.
Um, no, the CATHOLIC version used to say MARY would bruise satans head. You know that little deceit was HISTORICALLY in the CATHOLIC version prior to the King James, but I understand why you want to hide that FACT.
This is the first verse cited in defense of the IC...though the Catholic Encyclopedia admits "No direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture."
It further admits the Vulgate translation is in error: The translation "she" of the Vulgate is interpretative; it originated after the fourth century, and cannot be defended critically.
I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel. Gen 3:15 Douay Rheims
And I will put enmity Between you and the woman, And between your seed and her seed; He shall bruise you on the head, And you shall bruise him on the heel." Gen 3:15 NASB