Posted on 05/27/2017 9:15:17 AM PDT by ealgeone
Question: "What is the doctrine of the sufficiency of Scripture? What does it mean that the Bible is sufficient?"
Answer: The doctrine of the sufficiency of Scripture is a fundamental tenet of the Christian faith. To say the Scriptures are sufficient means that the Bible is all we need to equip us for a life of faith and service. It provides a clear demonstration of Gods intention to restore the broken relationship between Himself and humanity through His Son, Jesus Christ, our Savior through the gift of faith. No other writings are necessary for this good news to be understood, nor are any other writings required to equip us for a life of faith.
(Excerpt) Read more at gotquestions.org ...
Do this in remembrance would be the phrase you’re looking for. That’s why context is so key to a proper understanding of the Scriptures.
Don't flatter yourself. Many of us have done those Bible studies when we were Protestants, so we also know you conflate "The Word of God" with the Bible without even thinking about it, let alone investigating it.
Have you gouged your eye out? Cut off an offending hand?
Not so clear in the Scriptures there, scholar.
You guys use that one like “call no man father.” Great for bashing Catholics, but never stopped you guys from using it for Dad.
Context my friend. Context.
And your “clarification” changes exactly “what” that I wrote?
With you, yes....we need to be clear. You have a foreign understanding of the issues regarding Christianity.
It provides the purpose of the event and how we are to understand it.
Oh, agreed.
The problem is Bible-only sects grant themselves universal authority to determine what context is important, and what context isn’t.
If the Bible teaches a universal prohibition against bowing to anything created, what of the normal acts of respect, fealty, obedience that have been extant since the creation of man, and why is it the only one you guys get bent out of shape about is bowing to the Blessed Virgin?
And how did your post do that...specifically?
Considering how Mary is worshipped in Roman Catholicism it means a great deal.
Interesting that you would chose a translation that diminished the word of God...
2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
2Ti 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.
Not only are the scriptures inspired by God,
The scriptures are good for doctrine...So good in fact that if you teach any other doctrine not found in the scriptures, you are anathema...
The scriptures are able to give one the means to rebuke those who teach otherwise...
At the same time, the scriptures will be used to correct wrong doctrine and traditions...
And of course instruction in how to be righteous...
These scriptures alone, as the verses indicate when studied and understood can make the man of God NOT just adequate, but complete, perfect in being thoroughly furnished in the knowledge of God...
1) At the time Paul wrote to Timothy, his letter was not Scripture. It was simply a letter from one evangelist to another. Since the letter was not Scripture, should Timothy have paid heed to it? If I understand your argument, only Scripture and no other form of Christian counsel, is worthy of credence.
Paul received his biblical revelations directly from Jesus...The minute he received those, they became scripture...Even before they were written down...And they became the traditions which paul taught until he had gotten the opportunity to put them to parchment...To think it didn't become scripture until your religion sanctioned it is ludicrous...
2) If I say that the Encyclopedia Brittanica is profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training, does it logically follow from this that no other source of information should ever be considered or consulted? Does this mean that the Encyclopedia Brittanica is the exclusive source of all knowledge?
When you find a God inspired Encyclopedia Brittanica it will be the only encyclopedia we adhere to...
Do you really think such backhanded snark changes my understanding you’ve been running from me like a rabbit for a week now?
If you dig into the Greek meaning of the words in the passage you would understand.
In your wildest imagination.
The only thing that need be considered here is how exactly like Social Justice Warriors you are like with assigning "worship" to the motivation of others in DIRECT contradiction to their own beliefs, testimonies, and explanations....
And again the personal with you. I must be over the target. The flak is increasing.
Scripture provides all we need to perform His Plan by His method, in a right fashion. In this sense it is adequate or complete to perform His Will, again through faith in Christ.
Really? Like how Protestant Greek scholars resolve their "petras/petros" quandary out of whole cloth?
Perhaps you could show me that "research" of yours....
See how much more fun a non caucus thread is? A free flowing exchange of information and opinions.
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