You are ignoring context and relying on your anti-Catholic viewpoint. You wish to disagree with the Catholic view that Mary did not remain a virgin, so you dismiss a justifiable interpretation that disagrees with yours.
You are ignoring the fact that the word ‘until’ does not always mean the behavior stops afterward. If you slice all of the 146 passages, you will find many more where the use supports my interpretation.
In fact, unless it is used in its most simple form in context of time(until morning, until sunset, etc), the word ‘until’ usually implies that the conditional behavior does indeed continue afterwards, as in the examples I provided.
In the Bible, the word until can be interpreted in more than one way. My interpretation of the meaning of the word ‘until’ is reasonable and biblical given the examples I have given. You may disagree with my interpretation, but it is Bible-based, and I am not in any way obligated to accept your interpretation as better than mine.
The truth is that Mary’s continued virginity, or lack thereof is not addressed in scripture. Any belief that you hold about that subject is therefore extra-biblical.
An honest sola-scriptura answer to that question would be ‘we don’t know’, not ‘you are wrong’.
Love,
O2
The passages noting his brothers and sisters disagree with your position.
Love,
O2
You do know the meaning of sola-scriptura...right?
Then why does the Catholic church teach that it's so and why do Catholics have an absolute meltdown at the thought that she wasn't?
And Scripture DOES tell us she wasn't always a virgin.
The angel told Joseph to not be afraid to take Mary AS HIS WIFE. That means he was her HUSBAND and that comes with all the responsibilities, and privileges of being a husband.
And it does say that he did not know her until AFTER she had given birth. In that case, the word *after* indicates that *until* has the clear meaning of something changed.
Not to mention that Jesus brothers *adelphos* , are referred to in Scripture BY NAME.
There is certainly a far stronger case for her NOT remaining a virgin than for her to have remained one.
So as I've asked before and not gotten an answer to, why is it so critical that Mary be a perpetual virgin?
What possible difference could it make in relation to our salvation?
It's not required by prophecy. It doesn't change anything about Jesus or what He did.