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Adam was human, but Scripture does not call him a descendant of David. God did not have to take a gamete from Mary to become incarnate, but if he was to become an incarnate being who is specifically descended from David as the Scripture says, he did need David’s DNA--not as a limitation on God's power, but as a limitation of logical self-consistency, for God can do anything that is possible, but the self-contradictory is by definition not possible. And he got David's DNA specifically from Mary, since Scripture calls Mary Jesus’ mother. (Technically, he could have taken it from other cells in Mary’s body besides gametes, but I don’t think that changes the argument.) And I do not see how “thou shalt not commit adultery” became “thou shalt not lend one’s genetics to God.” You complained in another post that conception was a physical act, but the actor here is a spirit, not a human, which is the key point: you can’t have physical sex without a body, God’s nurturing of a cell into a mature human is not a physical sexual act and therefore by definition not adulterous.

Your reasoning is quite faulty here: “And he got David’s DNA specifically from Mary, since Scripture calls Mary Jesus’ mother.” Mary IS the Mother of Jesus because she gestated HIM in HER UTERUS / womb. Where God took a gamete to make Jesus is not a thing you can know! But your desperate need to have Mary be the source of DNA for JESUS causes you to make assertions that you absolutely cannot prove! That is quite Catholic of you. For all you or I know GOD took a gamete from DAVID and made Jesus’s embryonic life of the body. Since humans can now do it, why are CATHOLICS so desperate to make GOD conform to their lust for raising Mary to demigoddess status?

You can't even get your own religion's source teaching straight!

Immaculate Conception. No direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture. But the first scriptural passage which contains the promise of the redemption, mentions also the Mother of the Redeemer. The sentence against the first parents was accompanied by the Earliest Gospel ( Proto-evangelium ), which put enmity between the serpent and the woman : "and I will put enmity between thee and the woman and her seed; she (he) shall crush thy head and thou shalt lie in wait for her (his) heel" ( Genesis 3:15 ). The translation "she" of the Vulgate is interpretative; it originated after the fourth century, and cannot be defended critically.
http://www.catholic.org/encyclopedia/view.php?id=6056

Can you understand that entry, and if not just say so and many here will try to help you with it.