“Why wasn’t it limited to people who were divorced by the other party without their consent and they never remarried?”
You appeared to be asking why it(Amoris Laetitia) was not limited to divorced people who have not remarried. I explained why it didn’t need to be.
If you meant to ask a different question, please clarify.
Asking a question and then demanding people stop lecturing you when they answer is rude.
Love, O2
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no no, I meant the article that was posted to FreeRepublic
I disagree with the premise/explanation that is trying to be invented in the article to explain what the Pope wrote.