Wow! Thanks for this very clear exposition of this subjunctive usage in Greek!
I just never understood that the "may" or "might" used by the KJV translators does not admit of possibility, but rather a certainty of execution. In fact, my disciple has clearly indicated that the "may/might" could be struck out without changing the meaning to be obtained from the translation (although its presence must then indicate that the associated verb is in the subjunctive mood in the Greek).
Am I understanding you correctly, and thoroughly?
I wonder if Machen or Robertson or Mounce or Wallace have this idea somewhere in their grammar texts. If so, do you know where that would be found?
I am so impressed with this nugget of syntax! Thanks!
Hi. What you’re saying sounds about right. I think it still needs some sort of helper in the English to get the sense across, so if “may/might” were struck, you’d have to still do something extra to clarify the exact shade of meaning. As for the standard Greek texts, it’s been a few years since I’ve been in one of those. I’m not sure where they’d talk about this.
Peace,
SR