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To: Jim Noble
When He says that a man who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, did He mean it in the same way He did when He spoke about having lustful thoughts at the sight of a sexy woman being the same as committing adultery with her, or did He mean that the second marriage was a state of continuous adultery?

Thou shalt not commit aduterey.

Thou shalt not covet thy neighbor's wife.

Does that answer your question?

19 posted on 12/04/2016 6:46:36 PM PST by ebb tide (We have a rogue curia in Rome.)
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To: ebb tide; SkyPilot
I understand your posts, but you didn't understand mine.

The Evangelical Statement of Faith (1943) begins: "We believe the Bible to be the inspired, the only infallible, authoritative Word of God"

There is no Bible Church nor are there any "Bible Christians" who dispute this. However, Christians who criticize the Roman Church for "not following the Bible", seldom follow the "infallible, authoritative Word of God" themselves when it comes to divorce and remarriage, whereas the Roman Church, at least up until Francis I, has been trying to do so.

20 posted on 12/04/2016 6:53:21 PM PST by Jim Noble (Die Gedanken sind Frei)
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