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To: unlearner; Elsie; MHGinTN
My post was mostly just the Bible.

No, it was just your erroneous interpretation of what the Bible says, and it is contested by other well-founded Biblical scholars (click here).

Quoting from this "Answers In Genesis" site, we read:

"These verses do not specifically mention the Nephilim, nor do they clearly state that fallen angels had sexual
relationships with women. However, they do place “the angels who sinned” (2 Peter 2:4), “who did not keep their
proper domain, but left their own abode” (Jude 6), in the same context as Noah. Both passages seem to compare the sin
of these angels with the sin of the people of Sodom and Gomorrah who had “in a similar manner to these, having
given themselves over to sexual immorality and gone after strange flesh” (Jude 7). Genesis 19:5 reveals that the men
of Sodom lusted after the two angels who had gone into Lot’s house. It is important to understand that while these
verses seem to lend strong support to the fallen angel view, they do not make a watertight argument for it."

Not watertight? Right. That means your interpretation that "sons of God" is "fallen angels" is just your opinion, not what is thoroughly confirmed. What is confirmed is the definition of the Hebrew "nephil" (singular) which means "fallen"; mistakenly translated in the uninspired Septuagint as γίγαντες (gigantes), carried over by Jerome in the Vulgate as transliterated into Latin as "gigantes", and once more into the Authorised Version Anglicized as "giants"; yet which usual English concept does not at all necessarily apply as you would wish but cannot prove.

In Jude, the spirit beings who willingly followed Lucifer/Satan as he was cast down (one of the definitions of "nephil") shared the quality of fallenness with him (Isaiah 14:14-15).

And the Devil Satan, figuratively the serpent, inveigled Eve to share that quality unwittingly, and therefore also Adam wittingly as a type of Christ, such that humans could also be truly described as in like manner fallen: in Jude verses 4 "written of in old times" (προγεγραμμενοι, by Moses as "nephelim"); and in verse 7 "giving themselves over" which is another definition of "nephil".

The whole message in Jude about certain MEN comprising verses 4 through 16 is all about their fallenness, not about their method of gaining that state, which was a different method than that used by devils (ex-angels) to achieve that state.

So, that would mean that even before the Flood, likely the "nephelim"--"fallen ones" were both fallen angels and fallen humans. Yet it was possible through faith in God and His Coming Messiah whilst consistently availing themselves of substitutionary blood sacrifices to be temporarily reprieved from the death that sin causes, they could again be denominated as "sons of God", an appellation not conferred on fallen angels, who once fallen can never return to their "first estate."

But the humans who by committed trust in God may be restored to their first estate, that of their federal head Adam in his pre-nephil condition, being imputed with righteousness, could then decide to go out and become once more defiled by missionary dating.

We must always remember that for humans, God is not as much concerned with physical death (repairable separation of the soul and spirit from the carnal flesh) as he is about the union or separation of communication of His Spirit with the spirit of a human (spiritual life or death), and the human's absolute eternal life (reunion of the man's soul and spirit with a perfect never-dying flesh-without-blood body) in constant communion with the Eternal God.

Thus, those faithful souls who died before the Flood, or in it, still will enjoy eternal life with their Savior as Friends of the Bride, as sons (and daughters?) of The God, forever.

Fallen angels, otherwise known as devils as their father the Devil is, and unrepentant worldlings (also children of Satan) can never hold the title of "son of God."

I hope you are following this far more credible explanation of Genesis 6 than yours. It is about misuse of the position and misuse of the soul and body than what it was designed for in God's plan for harmony with Him. It is not about misdesignating a human mode of rebellion to God's activity for them, and them alone--to procreate and populate the earthly sphere--as even imaginable as applying to the spiritual devil entity as a participant. To consider that possible is just another way that the fallen worldling's reasonings (imaginations) can be beguiled by the subtil serpent, IMHO.

The analysis I have supplied here is entirely consistent throughout the whole context of the Holy Scriptures, which yours is definitely not.

Be advised and warned.

184 posted on 10/06/2016 7:34:08 AM PDT by imardmd1 (Fiat Lux)
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To: imardmd1

Thank you for taking the time to lay out a reasoned position rather than simply posting insulting comments and running off.

Because I am in the middle of an extremely busy time, I do not think I will have the time to give your post the attention it deserves for about a week.

I did however read all of it and also all of the article you provided a link for. And I will prayerfully consider the issues you have put forward, the reasoning in the article you shared, and especially and most importantly the scriptures referenced.


187 posted on 10/06/2016 7:54:53 PM PDT by unlearner (RIP America, 7/4/1776 - 6/26/2015, "Only God can judge us now." - Claus Von Stauffenberg / Valkyrie)
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