I don’t know any Hebrew. But my understanding is that the learned rabbis do not think that almah implies virginity.
The learned rabbis who translated the Old Testament into the Greek Septuagint were of a different opinion. Of course now the rabbis would have a motive to deny this meaning in order to deny its application to the birth of Jesus. In any case, Saint Luke gives the definitive meaning when, following the Greek Septuagint, he renders it as virgin in his Gospel.