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To: Arthur McGowan
A "valid" marriage....is indeed redefined in roman catholicism.

It is done to justify allowing a divorce or the end of the marriage with man made justifications. It is exactly what the Pharisees did.

For a Catholic marriage to be valid, it is required that: (1) the spouses are free to marry; (2) they are capable of giving their consent to marry; (3) they freely exchange their consent; (4) in consenting to marry, they have the intention to marry for life, to be faithful to one another and be open to children; (5) they intend the good of each other; and (6) their consent is given in the presence of two witnesses and before a properly authorized Church minister. Exceptions to the last requirement must be approved by Church authority.

An initiative of the United States Conference of Catholic Bishops

http://www.foryourmarriage.org/catholic-marriage/church-teachings/annulments/

btw...this would mean Joseph and Mary's marriage would not be valid as per catholicism, though not the Bible, she was not open to children.

59 posted on 08/27/2016 5:17:34 PM PDT by ealgeone
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To: ealgeone

She was not “open to children”?

Hmmm. The angel Gabriel came to visit her, and asked if she would consent to be the mother of the savior. She said Yes.

This, among Protestants, is what passes for “reading the Bible”?


60 posted on 08/27/2016 6:39:17 PM PDT by Arthur McGowan
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To: ealgeone

BTW: Joseph and Mary were not Catholics. Therefore, they were not bound by Canon Law. Which, as it happens, did not yet exist.

Your mind, poisoned by anti-Catholic fury, is disorganized.


61 posted on 08/27/2016 6:43:01 PM PDT by Arthur McGowan
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