Nope. I
believe that it is possible as the second Adam His body was made out of exactly the same ever-living DNA of which the first Adam's body was made, until God "breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul" (Gen. 2:7, cf 1 Cor. 15:45-46 ). In the form of Adam, from whom all humans were/are derived, became sin--even Jesus was made to be Sin Personified (2 Cor. 5:21) that He might die for all the rest of mankind excepting none. Pretty obviously, the body that the Only Begotten-in-the-flesh Son of The Father God needed to be sinless for Him to dwell in. Neither maleness nor sinlessness could have come from Mary, the betrothed wife of Joseph and descendant of Adam from whose flesh Eve was made (although Eve lacked one feature to be a completed human).
Your premises are full of holes, I suspect. Of course, my logic had two conclusions, and two syllogisms, the second resting on the first. Do we need to lead you back through this?
You don’t even have one syllogism. And the whole Redemption depends on the Redeemer being both True God and True Man. In your version, Christ is not True Man. And obviously cannot come from the seed of Abraham, etc., and thus does not fulfill the prophecies.