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To: ealgeone
I read the entire New Testament in Greek years ago. I want to hear YOUR explanation.
You are the one claiming some sort of graduate level knowledge.
Where I come from graduate level means that you have enough competency to teach the material. So TEACH: Chronologically children are younger than their parents. How can the Son be eternal if he is younger than the Father? Are any of you the same age as any of your parents?

Maybe you want to consider asking one of your instructors, if this is too difficult for you.

581 posted on 06/04/2016 9:13:11 AM PDT by Thales Miletus (Men stand up for truth, cowards hide behind ignorance.)
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To: Thales Miletus; MHGinTN; verga; metmom; Mark17; HossB86; Elsie
I read the entire New Testament in Greek years ago. I want to hear YOUR explanation.

You are the one claiming some sort of graduate level knowledge.

Where I come from graduate level means that you have enough competency to teach the material. So TEACH: Chronologically children are younger than their parents. How can the Son be eternal if he is younger than the Father? Are any of you the same age as any of your parents?

Maybe you want to consider asking one of your instructors, if this is too difficult for you.

You continue to want to argue from an earthly perspective.

From an earthly perspective Jesus was around 33 yrs old when He was crucificed. However, that does not negate the statement John makes in 1:1-2 nor Jesus' statement in John 8:58 regarding His Heavenly existense.

1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2He was in the beginning with God. John 1:1-2

John's use of the Greek in John 1:1-2 makes this clear.

The verb "was" is in the indicative mood, imperfect tense, third person singular.

The indicative is the mood of assertion, or presentation of certainty. Wallace notes this is a declarative indicative which is routinely used to present an assertion as a non-contingent (or unqualified) statement. (Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, pp448-449)

Wallace notes the imperfect tense captures the action much like a motion picture, protraying the action as it unfolds. With reference to time the imperfect is almost always past.(Wallace, p541)

John's opening to his Gospel is stating that the Son was. John is also stating God also was. If the Logos was in the beginning and was with God, God has to be in the beginning also.

There is no suggestion by John of "when the second being instantly became sentient" or "when God came into existence" in his opening statement as verga stated in his #160 post.

Indeed, verga's post and your question flies counter to all that John says in 1:1-2 and the Christian understanding of the eternal existence of God.

John is operating under the understanding that God and the Logos have always existed.

Recall, John is moved by the Holy Spirit to pen these words. The Holy Spirit has also existed.

John's wisdom is coming from above and not below.

56“Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad.” 57So the Jews said to Him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham?” 58Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.” 59Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him, but Jesus hid Himself and went out of the temple. John 8:56-59

The Pharisees clearly understood what Jesus was saying in His conversation with them. He was equating Himself with the great I AM. He is saying He has always existed.

He was there with Abraham.

He was there before Abraham.

He has always been before whatever your mind can conceive of as time or existence.

Our human minds are incapable of grasping this completely.

The primary question is, do you believe Jesus has died for your sins and that by believing in Him you will have forgiveness of your sins and eternal life?

598 posted on 06/04/2016 11:15:05 AM PDT by ealgeone
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