**Christ applies to Himself the name of God, calling Himself “I Am” and establishing His omnipresence:**
Personal interpretation much??
Jesus Christ is filled with the power of the Father, who is invisible. John chapter 14 makes that quite plain.
**In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God (John 1:1)**
Are you saying that God the Father is not the source of the Word? Jesus Christ disagrees with you:
“My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me.” John 7:16
“For I have not spoken of myself: but the Father which sent me, he gave commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. And I know that his commandment is life everlasting: whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak.” John 12:49,50
Jesus Christ is the image of the invisible God. An image that speaks the words of the invisible God. Jesus Christ is not God the image, but the image of the invisible God (Col. 1:15).
**Rev_1:8....
Joh_20:28....
Joh_9:38....
Isa_9:6....**
All of which do not imply that the omnipotent, omniscient, and omnipresent (invisible) Father is off in la-la land, away from Christ. The Father is IN Christ giving him all power and authority. It is your challenge to prove that not to be the case.
Want two visible men that are to be viewed as God? The LDS hold that opinion, thanks to their false prophet founder.
Notice you didn't actually attempt to refute the obvious position, but chose to make a nonsensical comment. The scripture does not say that God merely fills Christ or empowers Him. It says Christ is God, and Christ calls Himself God.