How do you reconcile your wanting God to literally be flesh, when Jesus Christ and his aposltes declare God to be a Spirit and invisible? (John 1:18, 5:37, Col.1:15, 1Tim. 1:17, Heb. 11:27, 1John 4:12)
You use the word literally. Is this how you resolve your difference with what is written in Scripture? That when John wrote the Word became flesh, he did not mean that the Word literally became flesh?
**You use the word literally. Is this how you resolve your difference with what is written in Scripture?**
Difference?.....I harmonize the scriptures, not just pick the first portion of John 1:14, and build a doctrine around it. Read the last part: “..full of grace and truth”.
Where does the Son declare grace and truth to originate?....the Father.
**That when John wrote the Word became flesh, he did not mean that the Word literally became flesh?**
He meant that God was IN Christ, as Paul so accurately pointed out many times in his epistles.
BUT......here is a question for you: With your separate and distinct persons of God theology; can you quote a scripture that shows the FATHER receiving anything divine from the Son?
When you place the Father (Spirit) in the Son (divinely created flesh, with a soul), you have defined Jesus Christ in the simplest of terms.