“Until” does not imply cessation. In this case, it does not imply that Joseph ever ceased “not having relations” with Mary.
“Mom, pray for me until I get home” does not mean “then stop praying for me.”
“Until” doesn’t mean that in English, in Greek, in Aramaic, or in Hebrew.
I will note that the proper way to understand the Word is context. Context is the key to proper Biblical exegesis (the exposition or explanation of a text based on a careful, objective analysis. The word exegesis literally means “to lead out of.” That means that the interpreter is led to his conclusions by following the text gotquestions.org). Eisegesis is the opposite meaning “to lead into,” which means the interpreter injects his own ideas into the text, making it mean whatever he wants (gotquestions.org).
Mary’s response is very telling Luke 1:34 “εἶπεν δὲ Μαριὰμ πρὸς τὸν ἄγγελον Πῶς ἔσται τοῦτο, ἐπεὶ ἄνδρα οὐ γινώσκω;” Luke 1:34 “And Mary said to the angel: How shall this be done, because I know not man?” In both the Douay-Rheims and the King James version ἔσται is correctly translated as “shall” From Strong’s concordance 1510 εἰμί eimí (the basic Greek verb which expresses being, i.e. "to be"). Ἔσται is the future tense or “will be.”
Mary is not a 21st century city girl, She is a 1st century farm girl who understands the mechanics of procreation. Her response only makes sense if she had no intention of having a conjugal relation with the man she was already betrothed to. In the usual state of affairs a woman would expect to have children, but Mary is expressing amazement. Remember the angel has not yet told her that the child will be the literal Son of God only that he would be called the son of the most high and sit on the throne of David.
Catholicism claims this passage in Luke is Mary's pledge of remaining a virgin her whole life.
There is nothing in this passage to indicate that.
Let’s be sure we have the events in order.
Gabriel comes to Mary’s house and tells her she has found favor with God (Luke 1:26-30). She is engaged to Joseph (Matthew 1:18).
Gabriel tells Mary she will have a child (Luke 1:31-33).
Mary asks Gabriel how this will happen as she hasn’t “known” a man (Luke 1:34).
Gabriel explains to her how this will happen (Luke 1:35).
As Verga notes, she understands how babies are made. Mary's a good girl and has not engaged in sex with anyone at this point as per her statement in Luke 1:34. If we put the Greek into English it would read as this: “How will be/shall be this, since a man not I know?”
Verga goes on to note….” Mary is not a 21st century city girl, She is a 1st century farm girl who understands the mechanics of procreation. Her response only makes sense if she had no intention of having a conjugal relation with the man she was already betrothed to.
However, as we are about to see, her statement says nothing of the kind.
The two bolded words in my post are the verbs in her statement. The first, will be, is in the future indicative. The future is always future from the speaker’s perspective (Wallace, Greek Grammer Beyond the Basics, p567), in this case Mary’s.
The indicative mood is routinely used to present an assertion as an unqualified statement. It is the presentation of certainty (Wallace, 448-449). It can be translated as either will or shall”. In either case Mary’s question is one of mechanics. How will/shall be this….” and she’s going to explain why she’s asking this question in the second half of this verse.
The verb I know is present indicative active. The Greek is ginosko meaning properly, to know, especially through personal experience (first-hand acquaintance) HELPS Word-studies.
Wallace notes this verb could be considered a perfective present. This may be used to emphasize the results of a past action that are still continuing (Wallace 532-533; Wallace footnotes this referring to Fanning, Verbal Aspect 239-40. According to Fanning, the following verbs also occasionally function as perfective presents. Γινώσκω being among these). Wallace notes this is a very rare usage in the NT. He does not indicate this has any force into the future. In other words, there is no indication on Mary’s part she will remain a virgin.
Mary is emphasizing she has not had relations with a man in the past and that statement remains true as she is talking to Gabriel. The text does not say, “I have not had relations with a man and shall not/will not.” If that were the case Luke, being a doctor who has investigated all of this, would have so noted. Luke was very precise in his use of the Greek as we will see in another passage.
Of the major translations I will address the ones Verga cited plus the NASB. The NASB is considered to be the most literal of the English translations available. As Verga did not provide those translations I post them for your consideration.
Mary said to the angel, "How can this be, since I am a virgin?" NASB
And Mary said to the angel: How shall this be done, because I know not man? Douay-Rheims
Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man? KJV
Do any of these indicate that Mary is saying she will not have relations with a man?
Gabriel answers her question as to the “how” this will happen in the next verse. In Luke 1:38 Mary says to let it happen.
Let’s turn our attention to Matthew’s side of the story to complete the context.
Verga does correctly note Joseph and Mary are engaged and in Hebrew culture are considered for all intents and purposes to be married…..save consummation.
The Greek in Matthew 1:25 as rendered in English ; and not knew her until that she had brought forth a son; and he called the name of him Jesus.
Matthew 1: 25 also uses Γινώσκω, except in his usage the form is ἐγίνωσκεν; imperfect indicative active. The imperfect tense describes a continuous action usually occurring in the past (Wallace, Basics of Biblical Greek. 182).
Matthew is saying Joseph kept Mary a virgin until Jesus was born. I know the catholic will claim until has a lot of meanings and it does. However, context is the key in understanding the word.
From a contextual perspective which makes more since?
Matthew did not know (have sexual relations) with her until Jesus was born?
Or
as Arthur Mcgowan has attempted to put it, “it does not imply that Joseph ever ceased “not having relations” with Mary.”
In this context, Matthew is saying Joseph kept Mary a virgin until Jesus was born.
After that they consummated the marriage.
Did Joseph and Mary have other children?
The context of the NT says yes. Good Dr. Luke helps us understand this.
Luke 2:7 tells us Mary gave birth to her first born Son.
The Greek for first born is prototokos. It has the meaning of first-born, eldest, first in time (Strongs and HELPS Word Studies). We derive our English word prototype from this word. It allows for others to follow.
If Luke had wanted to indicate this was Mary’s only childhe could have used the Greek word monogenes. It means one and only, one of a kind, one of a class unique (HELPS). That would have ended the discussion right there. But Luke did not use that word.
John uses this word to describe Jesus in John 1:14, 18; 3:16, 18 in reference to Jesus being the only Son of God. I hope we all agree that God has no other Son.
Recall that Luke is a doctor and he has investigated everything so he will understand if there are additional children from Joseph and Mary. That Luke did not use monogenes is important to understanding the context of this passage and overall discussion.
Luke also noted in Acts 1:14 that, “…..Mary the mother of Jesus, and with His brothers” were in the Upper Room.
I hope the catholic will not appeal to the various uses of brother in the NT a a disclaimer these could be His brothers. The word does allow a meaning of fellow believer, esp a fellow Christian, along with, well, a brother.
Again the context will determine the usage. As an example. Matthew 4:18 notes: Now as Jesus was walking by the Sea of Galilee, He saw two brothers, Simon who was called Peter, and Andrew his brother, casting a net into the sea; for they were fishermen.” Are these blood brothers from the same family? Yes. The context tells us this.
An example of when brother is used as fellow believers in Christ is found in 2 Timothy 4:21….”Make every effort to come before winter. Eubulus greets you, also Pudens and Linus and Claudia and all the brethren.” Again, context is your key to understanding the usage of a word.
Some have said there is no passage in the NT that says, “Joseph and Mary had relations and so and so was born.” That would be an accurate statement. However, we do not need that statement due to the overall context of what Matthew, Luke, Mark, John and Paul have recorded regarding His family.
As I noted before Luke was a doctor. He was thorough. Luke 1:1-4 records the following:
1Inasmuch as many have undertaken to compile an account of the things accomplished among us, 2just as they were handed down to us by those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and servants of the word, 3it seemed fitting for me as well, having investigated everything carefully from the beginning, to write it out for you in consecutive order, most excellent Theophilus; 4so that you may know the exact truth about the things you have been taught.
Luke has made every effort to provide as accurate an account as possible for Theophilus.
I’m not going to cover his other points as they reflect eisegesis and not exegesis.