I know you didn’t read it because I provided example’s of what it meant directly from scripture. Any one that is foolish enough to think betrothed means merely engaged, has never read the Bible for any depth.
No, you are wrong. I did read it -stop insinuating I lied. I never said betrothal was like modern engagement - you were the one doing that when you insisted Joseph couldn't have divorced Mary unless they were "married". Here's what you said which prompted my little lesson on Old Testament Jewish betrothal:
No She was BETROTHED. For all intents and purposes they were WED. If they were not married but only “engaged” it would not have been necessary for Joseph to divorce her. Matthew 1:19 “Ἰωσὴφ δὲ ὁ ἀνὴρ αὐτῆς, δίκαιος ὢν καὶ μὴ θέλων αὐτὴν δειγματίσαι, ἐβουλήθη λάθρᾳ ἀπολῦσαι αὐτήν.” Matthew 1:19 “Whereupon Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing publicly to expose her, was minded to put her away privately”. The word ἀπολῦσαι from Strong’s concordance 630 /apolýō ("to release") is specifically used of divorcing a marital partner We see the exact same term used when Jesus is discussing marriage and divorce in Mt 1:19, 5:31,32, 19:7-9. On the way to Bethlehem the Scripture still refers to them as BETROTHED.
Can you not understand what I was trying to clarify to you?