1... Mary almost seems to dominate the scene; the presence of Jesus is mentioned secondarily...Once the marriage is arranged she steps back; her final words to us are, "Do whatever he tells you."
Almost seems to dominate the scene, with Christ playing second fiddle? Typical of Marian unScriptural exaltation, and a false statement here as well, for Mary's role (2:1-5) was one of making known a need and then of the need for submission to Christ, who is the One who does the miracle after reminding Mary again (Lk. 2:49) that He was subject to His Father's will, not obligated to meet her request, as a study of the phrase "what have I to do with thee" testifies to.
St. Thomas Aquinas notes that at Cana, Mary acts as the "go-between" in arranging a mystical marriage...
And just where is this even inferred? The Holy Spirit simply says that "And the third day there was a marriage in Cana of Galilee; and the mother of Jesus was there," (John 2:1) not that she arraigned any marriage, and her activity there does not amount to arranging a mystical marriage. But many Caths feel free to make Scripture say what they want it to, as it is a servant not a master for them.
I know that it was Mary who drew me back to her Son when I had strayed.
He does? She did? Well then the Holy Spirit left that out also, since the only supernatural being who is said to draw souls to God is God/Christ via His Spirit, and who cries "Abba, Father," (Gal. 4:6) not "Mamma, Mother."
But if he means psychological drawing then he is in the real of cults. And indeed, The Catholic Encyclopedia speculates that a further reinforcement of Marian devotion, “was derived from the cult of the angels, which, while pre-Christian in its origin, was heartily embraced by the faithful of the sub-Apostolic age." (Catholic Encyclopedia > Devotion to the Blessed Virgin Mary)
She is praying for others to her Son
Which is not being prayed to, and no one ever is shown coming to Mary for intercession. Just one more thing the Holy Spirit left out which Caths presume to add.
she goes directly to her Son out of love for the couple
If she can and does intercede in Heaven, fine, though there is no warrant for sanctifying that as a teaching, must less praying to her or any created being in Heaven, which the Holy Spirit provides zero examples (about 200) of anyone but pagans doing.
Mary is not directive
Which is contrary to what other Catholics say of her.
Hence this text stands out as unusual and signals that Jesus is speaking at a deeper level. In the Johannine texts Jesus always calls his Mother, "Woman." This is in fulfillment of Genesis 3:15, which says, I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her seed; he shall crush your head, while you strike at his heel. And thus Jesus is saying that Mary is this woman who was prophesied....In this sense Mary is also the new Eve.
That is absurd, as the Lord uses the same word in addressing the women at the well, (Jn. 4:21) and the women caught in adultery, (Jn. 8:10) and Mary Magdalene, (Jn. 20:15) and what is consistent with other Scripture is that of the Lord referring to Mary as a disciple, which He likened all who did the will of His Father to being. (Mt. 12:46-48) Of course, some RCs even changed Genesis 3:15 to read "she shall crush your head."
The tenacity of Mary - In Greek, Jesus' words to his mother are, τί ἐμοὶ καὶ σοί, γύναι - ti emoi kai soi, gunai (What to me and to thee, Woman?). When this phrase appears elsewhere in the Scriptures (e.g., Gen 23:15; 1 Kings 19:20) it usually indicates some kind of tension between the interlocutors. On the surface, it would seem that Jesus is expressing resistance to the fact that His mother striving to involve Him in this matter. What makes this interpretation odd, though, is that Mary doesn't seem to interpret Jesus' response as resistance.
She does indeed by simply say "do whatever He says," as the resistance, as shown by the use of that phrase, is that the party being addressed is under no obligation to receive the request, but which in grace may be received and responded to anyway. As with "How is it that ye sought me? wist ye not that I must be about my Father's business?," (Luke 2:49) the Lord is telling Mary that it is His Father in Heaven whose will He is subject to, her implied request notwithstanding.
it is clear that Mother Mary does not give up;
Meaning rather than the Catholic Mary who is exalted as the dispenser of all grace, and is prayed to, Mary was submissive to Divine will.
. Mary's prayer and tenacity produced abundant results.
Meaning Mary simply mentioned a need, and the Lord Jesus did the miraclous, versus her praying to a created beings in Heaven or being prayer to. So far its the Biblical Mary, not the Catholic one we see.
The Catholic tradition of turning to Mary and regarding her as a special intercessor with particular power is rooted in this passage.
No, as she examples what often is Protestant prayer, not praying to her or created beings in Heaven and an exalted mythical Queen of Heaven, which is only mentioned in Scripture as a pagan one.
As St. Thomas Aquinas say, she is the "go-between," the great matchmaker in the mystical marriage of Christ and the soul.
Rather, the Holy Spirit teaches only of Christ being the heavenly intercessor, (1Tim. 2:5) and who "ever liveth to make intercession" for the saints. (Heb. 7:25) And who is uniquely qualified to help as He alone was "in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin" (Hebrews 4:15) and by whose blood believers have direct entrance into the holy of holies in glory. (Heb. 10:19) Thanks be to God.
So easily refuted.
Good work, dan.
Our Lord Jesus equates anyone who does the will of the Father as His brother, sister or mother. There is no special reserve status for Mary. The only designation missing is "Father". That is because we have only ONE Father-God the Father. And that is why we should call no one "Father".