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To: MHGinTN
Did The Son exist before His incarnation? ... Try to step out of magic thinking and be honest with your response. Say 'yes, The Son as a person in the Triune God has always existed, as John 1 testifies under Holy Spirit inspiration.'

The only Magic thinking here is you who want to insist that Christianity does not have a comprehensive understanding of the Trinity, of Mary as the Mother of God, and the Two Natures in one Divine Person Jesus. What you have difficulty with is is Theology. Try not to be ignorant of your faith. Your objections thus far have been have absurdly been denying the reality that the divinity and humanity exist in one person Jesus.

Now in human terms being the mother of someone means that the someone came into existence in that mother's body.

Your mistake is here. That the motherhood implies that the existence of the person rests solely on her authorship. It does not. No mother is the sole author of the existence of Her child. They do not spontaneously conceive alone.

His Human nature came into existence in Her womb. God is outside of time. He therefore does not have a beginning or end. The Second person came into creation in her womb with Her cooperation. What the incarnation means is that Jesus came into the world as a Human being, who is both God and Man. He, outside of his creation, came into creation assuming the flesh of his creation. Once again, a twisted interpretation of the definition of Mother is at work in your understanding. It is not implied that the sole authorship of the persons existence begins in the womb.

And ya know what, Scriptures tell us that for a season He made Himself a little lower than the Angels, to be our Savior.

You are describing his humility, He is the refulgence of the Glory of God.(Heb 1:3) His condescension does not change His identity as the Son of God. For he was always in the "form of God."(Phil 2:6) The fact that infinity is contained in one person is a mystery, but if you want to believe in infinite salvation for mankind you have to put together the infinite and the finite. They exist only in one person.

Of course, you nor I can say precisely when The Son began to occupy that gestating body, but it had to be pretty early since the six months old nane in Elizabeth's body recognized His Lord's Presence.

Stop right there. What you're advocating is Adoptionism which is wrong. At no time what so ever is Jesus ever not fully God and fully Man, from the moment of his conception unto the present age. Otherwise, the divine person did not fully assume the humanity of Man. Because therefore there was a time where the nature of Jesus' humanity was not united to his divinity. What makes it so hard for Him to have fully assumed our Humanity? 1 john 2:22 speaks here.

709 posted on 01/05/2016 12:32:40 PM PST by Bayard
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To: Bayard

Ah, so you need to fabricate strawmen so you have something to post against. Your assertions are running over with false assumptions in my regard. But I do understand your need for that approach. It is, as you know full well, a form of dishonesty. Have nice day


716 posted on 01/05/2016 12:49:50 PM PST by MHGinTN (Is it really all relative, Mister Einstein?)
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