Read it no. I’ll clarify - provide a proper reading of the Greek in the context in which it was understood when the Aramaic concept was transcribed.
Why would Luke use an Aramaic term, when he was not a Jew, and traveled with Paul, who knew well both Aramaic and Greek? If the point was as critical to the Christian’s understanding of the Bible, why would Luke not use a more precise term, as he did for the offices of the Roman officials?
Also, where is this original Aramaic document? I know there are some Aramaic translations that post-date the earliest known Greek versions, but I have not heard of any that pre-date the Greek.