let's take a look at one of the verses that protestants like to throw out as defending their position:Mat 1:25 and knew her not until (till) she had brought forth a son: and he called his name JESUS. The key word being ἕως
Bible Hub; Strong's concordance 2193/ Thayer's Greek Lexicon 1. the temporal terminus ad quem, till, until (Latindonee,usquedum); as in the best writings a. with an preterite indicative, where something is spoken of which continued up to a certain time:
Notice it specifically says it continued up to a certain time. It does not say or imply that the condition changed afterward.
1Co 15:25 For he must reign, till he hath put all his enemies under his feet. Will Jesus's reign end after His enemies are under his feet?
Gen_3:19 in the sweat of thy face shalt thou eat bread, till thou return unto the ground; for out of it wast thou taken: for dust thou art, and unto dust shalt thou return. Will Adam eat bread after he dies?
2Sa 6:23 Therefore Michol the daughter of Saul had no child till the day of her death.
How many children did she have after she dies?
Now lets take a look at the issue of "First born" We firs see it when God directs the Israelites to dedicate the first born of man and animals to him: Exo 13:2 Sanctify unto me every firstborn that openeth the womb among the children of Israel, as well of men as of beasts: for they are all mine.
If you look at 1 Samuel you will see that Anna dedicated her firstborn Samuel to God.
we see in Colossians Col 1:15 who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation;
Jesus is referred to as the first Born of God?
How many other children did God have?
The passage you cite in Matthew, if read in context with the other passages involving His brothers and sisters, clearly indicates Joseph kept Mary a virgin until Jesus was born.
The verse in Matthew 1:25 for context:
but kept her a virgin until she gave birth to a Son; and he called His name Jesus. NASB
And he knew her not till she brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS. Douay-Rheims
The word to focus on is "knew" or "kept". The Greek is ginosko. It has the meaning of to know, especially through personal experience.
Now we know Joseph and Mary knew each other. They had met so it doesn't have that meaning.
For additional context, as we are discussing Joseph and Mary's intimacy, refer to Luke 1:34 where Mary asked Gabriel, "How will this be since I do not know (ginosko...same word in Matthew) a man?"
Mary asks this question right after Gabriel had told her she was going to have a child.
As Mary was a virgin, which we all agree on, she was asking Gabriel how she would be a mom when she had not had sexual intercourse.
Mary was a good girl and had kept herself pure.
The passage in Matthew, if read in context with Luke, can only indicate one thing....Joseph kept Mary a virgin until Jesus was born.
After His birth, Joseph and Mary "knew" each other as married couples do.
If read in context.... after that they consummated the marriage producing other brothers and sisters.
we see in Colossians Col 1:15 who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation;
Just so we have the verse for context.
He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation. Col 1:15 NASB
Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: Col 1:15 Douay-Rheims
The Greek word for firstborn in this passage is prototokos. It is an adjective. The definition means first born, eldest; the first among others.
Jesus is referred to as the first Born of God?
Actually in this passage He is the first born of all creation.
How many other children did God have?
Jesus is the only begotten, (GR: monogenes), Son of God as used in John 1:14,18; John 3:16,18; Hebrews 11:17; 1 John 4:9.
There is no contradiction of the text to call Jesus the only begotten Son of God, which He is, and to say He was the first born of Mary, which He is.
The Greek, along with context, indicates Joseph and Mary had sexual relations producing other children.
Notice it specifically says it continued up to a certain time. It does not say or imply that the condition changed afterward.
It most certainly does...
:up to (a particular time)
—used to indicate the time when something will happen, become true, etc.
What school did you go to???
1Co 15:25 For he must reign, till he hath put all his enemies under his feet. Will Jesus's reign end after His enemies are under his feet?
Well, what does he say??? He says he will reign til he has put all his enemies under his feet...And he says it numerous times in the scriptures...Just because you don't get it doesn't mean the bible is wrong...
Gen_3:19 in the sweat of thy face shalt thou eat bread, till thou return unto the ground; for out of it wast thou taken: for dust thou art, and unto dust shalt thou return. Will Adam eat bread after he dies?
HuH??? It says Adam will eat bread til he dies...Then something changes...You know what that is??? He no longer eats, anything...
2Sa 6:23 Therefore Michol the daughter of Saul had no child till the day of her death. How many children did she have after she dies?
Will you get a copy of the scriptures that is not perverted so you don't end up with these goofy questions???
2Sa 6:23 Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child unto the day of her death.
Hopefully you can get it from that verse...
We see in Colossians Col 1:15 who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; Jesus is referred to as the first Born of God? How many other children did God have?
HaHaHa...It says nothing about children in the verse...
Col 1:15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
Who you trying to fool, other Catholics???
But the fact is, God has millions upon millions of other children...
Joh 3:7 Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again.
Joh_1:12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:
You make this fun...
Let's see what the Word has to say on this.
25For He must reign until He has put all His enemies under His feet. 26The last enemy that will be abolished is death. 27For HE HAS PUT ALL THINGS IN SUBJECTION UNDER HIS FEET. But when He says, “All things are put in subjection,†it is evident that He is excepted who put all things in subjection to Him. 28When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all. I Cor 15:25-28 NASB
And there's your answer....found in the context of the Word.