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To: Rashputin
There’s also the little matter of matter of Mary being guilty of adultery if she slept with Joseph after giving herself to the Holy Spirit.

Explain Matthew 1:25. As a matter of fact explain what this means in the Catholic version of the Bible. What do you think is meant by marital relations?

Matthew 1:25New Revised Standard Version Catholic Edition (NRSVCE)
25 but had no marital relations with her until she had borne a son;[a] and he named him Jesus.
188 posted on 01/02/2016 7:23:09 AM PST by Old Yeller (Obama is winning the war on terror when you realize he is on the side of the enemy.)
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To: Old Yeller
And what part of that verse says she had any relations thereafter ?

Your reading of that verse is like reading an obituary that says, "Susie had no children prior to her death" and therefore assuming Susie had children after she was dead.

Sorry, any way you cut it there's no proof in Scripture that Mary had other children and given the fact that she accepted the Holy Spirit as the father of Jesus Christ she was therefore already joined with the Holy Spirit and any relations with anyone else thereafter would be adulterous.

Of course, those who take adultery lightly are free to argue whatever they choose to believe based on their faith in their Self and Self Alone which is the only place someone can come up with 99.999% of the trash non-Catholics have to say about Catholics.

have a nice day

189 posted on 01/02/2016 7:29:53 AM PST by Rashputin (Jesus Christ doesn't evacuate His troops, He leads them to victory.)
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