Please explain why the NT apostles did not teach “without Mary’s intercession there is no salvation.”
Should not have Paul at least addressed such at least once in the multitudes of epistles recorded in the New Testament?
That leads me to believe you view the Holy Scriptures as incomplete, yet the NT in several locations tells us what is presented is sufficient to know God’s Gospel and message of salvation.
For a reminder...There is also a post from Daniel1212 unanswered.
There are a lot of unanswered questions Catholics can’t or won’t answer.
For that matter, show where Mary even was shown being asked by anyone to pray for them or to intercede. At the wedding at Cana, (Jn. 2) no one asked her to intercede, and rather than "yes Mother" when she wanted Him to do something there, the Lord basically reminded her not to presume anything as He was subject to the Father's will.
And rather than Spirit showing Him going to her when she desired to see Him as He was teaching, the Lord equated all who did the will of His Father with being His mother. (Mt. 12:46-50; Lk. 18:19-21)
That leads me to believe you view the Holy Scriptures as incomplete,
Indeed many RCs do, the material sufficiency of Scripture being something RCs can debate, among ma other things, despite the claim of "We have ONE Church, ONE interpretation and ONE truth," but effectively Rome does view the Holy Scriptures as incomplete, as the real basis for so many of her teachings is her amorphous oral tradition.