[ealgeone]

We do have evidence from those men from 1500 yrs ago you seek after. It is agreed, except in cathokic circles, that Jerome's translation of Lk 1:28 is incorrect. DR is in the distinct minority, like two, of the major translations that continue to translate this as full of grace. It is from this incorrect interpretation catholicism has continued its error regarding Mary.

BTW, I read the article on catholic encyclopedia online. So many errors and so many "we want it to be".

To say it is not used anywhere else in greek is suspect as this is in the perfect participle verb. It is not an unusual verb in greek.

But I know that doesn't fit catholic dogma.

[Mrs. Don-o]

"To say it is not used anywhere else in greek is suspect as this is in the perfect participle verb. It is not an unusual verb in greek.

But I know that doesn't fit catholic dogma."

That Catholic Church does not have "dogmas" on the subject of Greek grammar.

Sheesh.

But if you come across "Kecharitomene" in any context other than a commentary of Luke 1:28 you let me know, OK? Because nobody else , to my knowledge, has been able to find one.

In fact, one of my points is that Jerome's translation "full of grace" ("gratia plena") is not an ideal rendering of "Kecharitomene", nor even a very adequate one. I would say the Angelic Salutation goes somewhat beyond that.

It's not that one can be "fuller than full," but that Greek, highly inflected language that it is, denotes so much more in a single word which has past, perfect, continuing, nominative, and feminine indicators all combined in one word.

Latin is not as inflected as Greek is, and English even less so. That's why a really adequate translation would take a rather fuller phrase than "highly-favored one" or even "full of grace."