What EXACTLY is the doctrinal change supposed to be? A change in canon law procedure does not necessarily encroach on anything doctrinal.Indeed.
How do these changes not undermine the doctrine of the indissolubility of marriage and the Sixth Commandment? It reminds me of the 1983 Canon Law changes that now allow non-Catholics to receive communion without conversion. That change undermines the doctrine of the Eucharist and the First Commandment.