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To: Zuriel
And then you give me a long list that only proves what I’ve been saying all along: that the Father is in Christ,....and that is the only literal place you find the Almighty (the fullness of the Godhead bodily).

Well, how do those verses actually prove your nonsense, and why does Christ as Messiah being in the Father prove He may be called God, take the titles of God, create the world, be called Almighty, receive worship, etc etc., but we may not do these things when we also have the Father in us and are in the Father?

"My glory will I not give to another," [Isaiah 42:8]

Just repeating yourself and making assertions over and over again do not replace an argument.

Your trinity concept divides God (from henceforth, try eliminating the use of ‘separate’, in defining God).

No, the scripture does not divide the essence of God, which is always One, but it does divide the person of God over and over again:

Isa_48:16 Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me.

Gen_1:26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

2Co_13:14 The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion of the Holy Ghost, be with you all. Amen.

John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God and the Word was God.

111 posted on 09/01/2015 8:51:55 PM PDT by Greetings_Puny_Humans (I mostly come out at night... mostly.)
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To: Greetings_Puny_Humans

**but we may not do these things when we also have the Father in us and are in the Father?**

Have you received the Spirit without measure? Are you appointed to be the Judge of the quick, and the dead?

Let’s take a verse (2Cor. 13:14) that you quoted and put it in a ‘Trinitarian amplified version’:

The grace of God the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God the Father, and the communion of God the Holy Ghost, be with you all. Amen.

Let’s use another verse, using the ‘Trinitarian amplified version’. This one has Peter testifying of the Lord to Cornelius. Remember, the Lord commended Peter for his God-given understanding of who he (Jesus Christ) was. So, there is no confusion on Peter’s part as he relates to Cornelius who Jesus Christ is:

How God the Father anointed God the Son, Jesus of Nazareth with God the Holy Ghost and with power.... T.A.V. (heh)

**”My glory will I not give to another,” [Isaiah 42:8]**

The Father is in Christ, so he’s not giving up any glory.

**Gen_1:26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness:**

And what is that likeness.....a man, with a soul, filled with the Spirit of God.

**John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God and the Word was God.**

Already answered that verse, in post #86, remember?...
*Keep in mind, the following is presented using your separate and distinct, co-equal Gods idea: the Son is the Word, and the Father in NOT the Word. So did the Father just put the Son’s words in a hard drive somewhere, until the Son needed them? But then there’s that pesky problem about the Son saying repeatedly that the words that he spoke were not his, but the Father’s.*

But, you demand that the Word be the Son, separate and distinct, when they aren’t separate. Anywhere you find the Son, you find the Father. John 14 makes that quite clear. Jesus Christ is the mouthpiece (among many other things) of the Father.

I’ve been decent to you. Prove you are honest, and answer this question: Did the Son inherit his name, Jesus, and if so, from who?


114 posted on 09/02/2015 7:49:34 PM PDT by Zuriel (Acts 2:38,39....Do you believe it?)
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