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To: stonehouse01
Not necessarily. An equally valid position (from the bible) says that He established His Truth claims directly from His Father, or to put it another way, His power comes straight from God the Father without the need of a “scripture middleman”.

While we know His power comes straight from God, and if there was no prior revelation the Son could establish the validity of His claims simply by holiness, wisdom and supernatural attestation, yet since by this means (Moses etc.) God had expressly revealed His word on a corporate level, and recorded that in a transcendent medium (writing), then the Lord who claimed to be of that God needed to manifest conflation with it.

Before Scripture began to be written God expressly (doing beyond natural revelation) revealed Himself and will in a very limited degree to a very limited amount of people. But when He began to address an entire nation then He commanded and inspired His word to be written.

And which, as it was written, became the transcendent standard for obedience and testing and establishing Truth claims, as is abundantly evidenced , by which oral preaching of the word was examined by.

Therefore, from rebuking the devil by the Scriptures at the beginning of His ministry, Mt. 4) to rebuking the historical magisterium, (Mt. 22) to validating His Messianic fulfillment to His disciples, (Lk. 24:27,44) it was not appeal to rabbi so and so but to the Scriptures.

While this does not exclude the leading of the Spirit, and the oral preaching of the word, of Scriptural Truths by the whole church, nor the magisterial office, and teachers, etc., it makes all subject to what is written, to the only tangible extensive body of Truth that is wholly inspired of God.

13 posted on 07/21/2015 8:57:58 AM PDT by daniel1212 (Turn to the Lord Jesus as a damned and destitute sinner+ trust Him to save you, then follow Him!)
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To: daniel1212

“...when He began to address an entire nation then He commanded and inspired His word to be written”.

Interesting. For consideration:

Israel was an entire nation that received instruction directly from God orally through Moses. Some of this was written down but the Oral Torah was passed down orally for many generations. The written law and the Oral Torah were equally important and parallel to each other.

Also I am not aware of anywhere in the NT that Jesus instructed his disciples to write things down. 2 John 12 in fact speaking face to face and preaching was the preferred method of teaching in those illiterate times.

A stong Oral Law together with the Written Law was the system of the Jewish people.

Why would the early Jews who became the very first Christians suddenly change this concept to only written? The Sermon on the Mount refers to Oral Tradition in the section on lust as well as prayer. Jesus had no problem using Oral Tradition as a source -


16 posted on 07/21/2015 1:14:24 PM PDT by stonehouse01
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