>>>So God promised to bring back His wife but she has become a male per your analysis.<<<
I simply revealed what Scripture says about Israel + the Gentiles. It wasn’t me that said that the Church = Israel + Gentiles = “one new man” = “one body” in Ep.2.15b-16. God did - go argue with Him.
I explained Mt.13.33 in my first post. Why do I have to explain it again?
Again, Revelation tells us flat-out that the heavenly Jerusalem is the bride, not the Church, and Galatians tells us flat-out that the heavenly Jerusalem is also our mother (of the Church - her son). No errors.
But by all means, go ahead and cling to your tradition...
What you evidently didn't take into account is that is that is during this age of grace which ends with the fullness of the Gentiles.
<Romans 11:25 For I do not want you, brethren, to be uninformed of this mystery-- so that you will not be wise in your own estimation-- that a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in;
>>I explained Mt.13.33 in my first post.<<
NO, you didn't. You simply dismissed it.
>>Again, Revelation tells us flat-out that the heavenly Jerusalem is the bride, not the Church<<
You also ignored who it is that inhabits that New Jerusalem.
>>and Galatians tells us flat-out that the heavenly Jerusalem is also our mother (of the Church - her son).<<
And I showed you that "Greek - hyiós - equally refers to female believers (Gal 3:28). [http://biblehub.com/greek/5207.htm]
And you contend that Israel turned from a female wife to a male.