Ephesians 3:2 If ye have heard of the dispensation (oikonomia) of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:
God clearly managed the affairs with man in different ways during different periods. The stewardship (oikonomia) or how He managed the affairs of man changed over time. The word "dispensation" is simply a "period of time" during which God managed one way then another in a different period of time. This "age of grace" is clearly different than the "age of the law".
>>Interpreting scripture rather than taking it as it is plainly written is not a path to sound doctrine.<<
As I clearly showed you did in my last post to you.
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This is in my opinion criminal:
Using the presence of the word ‘Dispensation’ in a very few verses in an attempt to support dispensationalism, which is nowhere to be found in the scriptures.
Matthew 5 makes it plain that the word of God is not to be sliced and diced to create separate applications of the word.
Since Torah remains until the end of the physical universe, such would not be possible.
Paul stated clearly in Hebrews that the gospel he preached was the exact gospel that Moses preached, so where does the word of God fracture to satisfy the apostasy that you present?
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The word of god says plainly that the grace of God was dispensed to Abraham, so is that where this “dispensation” begins?
There are no dispensations in the manner that you employ the word.
This is false doctrine, plain and simple.