[Springfield Reformer]

Your alleged problem concerning Joseph's fathers resolves easily, as a natural consequence of the law of Moses and typical genealogical practice in Israel at the time:

Moreover, in the genealogy, Heli is listed as the father of Joseph, who had 2 daughters. The first is Mary, and the other was Zebedee’s unnamed wife (Matthew 27:56; John 19:25). When there were no sons to preserve the inheritance in accordance with the Law of Moses (Numbers 27:1–11; Numbers 36:1–12), the husband would become the son upon marriage to keep up the family name. Therefore, Joseph, when he married Mary, became the son of Heli according to the Law of Moses and could legally be included in the genealogy.

Available here: https://answersingenesis.org/bible-timeline/genealogy/whats-in-a-fathers-name/

These are trivial "discrepancies."  Anyone who actually studies the text and the background and works up a little legitimate sweat in trying to sort it out honestly is going to find zero substantial contradictions.

Peace,

SR

[StormPrepper]

Your alleged problem concerning Joseph's fathers resolves easily, as a natural consequence of the law of Moses and typical genealogical practice in Israel at the time:

This is a logical fallacy. You're arguing against the weaker point while ignoring the bigger and more glaring issue.

The bigger point is, that if every word in the Bible has a single source, meaning God, there shouldn't be any discrepancy in the stories at all. God knows all and is perfect. Therefore, His word should be perfect always.

Therefore, I can conclude that the Bible is not inerrant because there are flaws introduced by men.