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Instead, it does follow that if an infallible magisterium is essential for the discernment of what is of God, then since then it is contrary to how the NT church began, as there was no infallible magisterium to tell them what was Scripture or the Messiah.

It might be good to observe that in spite of Jewish claims to infallibility, and the identical claims of infallibility by the Roman church, the ecclesiastical branch has never been very good at maintaining pure doctrine - It has ever been the prophet who is raised up with the purpose of straightening them boys out.

Of course, they don't like being upbraided much, so in righteous indignation, they kill the prophet, and eventually YHWH quits sending prophets altogether. A few questions arise thereby:

Foremost: Where have all the prophets gone (long time passing)

If Israel was punished for every prophet from Abel to Zacharias, I wonder who will catch the grief for all the prophets since Zacharias?

Lastly, when the prophets do finally again appear, they arrive as a prophet of doom. Who in our day will recognize an Ezekiel, laying naked in the streets, playing with sandcastles and cooking on poop?

AUTHORITAY!!! It is a caution.

- It has ever been the prophet who is raised up with the purpose of straightening them boys out.

That is correct, that while the magisterial office is valid, and instrumental in preserving Truth, yet God often raised up men from with the magisterium to reprove it, and to provide His word and preserve it, and faith.

Thus the church began upon the apostles and prophets, not the historical magisterium which they were disobedient to.

However, Rome presumes the same error of those who sat in the seat of Moses in the time of Christ, that of presuming a level of assured veracity above that which is written, teaching for doctrines the traditions and commandments of men.

RCs even presumes that she has a infallible magisterium - a novelty in Scripture - and that such is even essential to known what Scripture is and means, and disallows rebuke of her, like the Pharisees of old.

Yet both writings as well as men of God were established as being so without a infallible magisterium, and overall it was the common people who believed John the Baptist and the Lord Jesus were of God. To such they responded,

But this people who knoweth not the law are cursed. (John 7:49)

And thus they also demanded of Christ, an itinerant preacher as far as official magisterial sanction was concerned, by what authority He ministered, and its source. But in response the Lord invoked the ministry of another itinerant preacher, asking where his authority came. Which they would not answer, since the common people recognized what they would not.

But under the Roman model for authority and validity then the historical magisterium of the instruments and stewards of Scripture, and inheritors of the promises of God of Divine guidance, presence and perpetuation.

And since Israel was this entity (Gn. 12:2,3; 17:4,7,8; Ex. 19:5; Lv. 10:11; Dt. 4:31; 17:8-13; Ps, 11:4,9; Is. 41:10, Ps. 89:33,34; Jer. 7:23) over whom the Scribes and Pharisees sat, (Mt. 23:2) then under the basic Roman model then 1st c. souls should have submitted to them, and rejected those whom it did not sanction but rejected, rather than follow their own judgment in the light of Scriptural evidence.

Yet instead they followed an itinerant Preacher who reproved the magisterium by Scripture, (Mk. 7:2-16) and established His Truth claims upon scriptural substantiation in word and in power, as did the early church as it began upon this basis. (Mt. 22:23-45; Lk. 24:27,44; Jn. 5:36,39; Acts 2:14-35; 4:33; 5:12; 15:6-21;17:2,11; 18:28; 28:23; Rm. 15:19; 2Cor. 12:12, etc.)

If Israel was punished for every prophet from Abel to Zacharias, I wonder who will catch the grief for all the prophets since Zacharias?

, God has sent prophet type preachers, and wise men, and scribes (Matthew 23:34) and true to form, some of them Rome has killed or scourged or otherwise persecuted from city to city, the righteous blood cries out for judgment (Prots also have some blood) like that of Abel, and which the elitist Roman institution shall suffer for in the day that she is abased, and she shall be abased.

But my prayer is all will come to God as souls damned for their works - not saved because of them - and destitute of any means or merit whereby they may escape their just and eternal punishment in Hell Fire and gain eternal life with God. And with contrite heart cast their whole-hearted repentant faith upon the mercy of God in Christ, trusting the risen Divine Lord Jesus to save them by His sinless shed blood. (Rm. 3:9 - 5:1) And whose faith is thus counted as righteousness, but it is a faith that will follow Him.

It might be good to observe that in spite of Jewish claims to infallibility,

Where, exactly, do any Jewish authorities claim infallibility of any stripe (much less the specific type which is entrusted to the Catholic Church)? Chapter and verse, please, since you're "sola Scriptura" types...

and the identical claims of infallibility by the Roman church,

It might also be good to observe that this is what logicians call a "straw man"--a bogus caricature of an opponent's argument, used for the purpose of easy demolition. Not only do I not know where any Jewish authorities claimed "infallibility", but there's an absolute disconnect between your argument and the true definition of Magisterial infallibility (which can easily be found by reading the Catechism of the Catholic Church).

the ecclesiastical branch has never been very good at maintaining pure doctrine - It has ever been the prophet who is raised up with the purpose of straightening them boys out.

Help me out, here. It sounds as if you're saying, "Jewish authorities = ecclesiastical branch [whatever that means]" and "Catholic Church = ecclesiastical branch", and you seem to be implying that--since the Jews erred in pure doctrine, and since the Catholic Church is somehow "the same", then the Catholic Church must have erred in pure doctrine. Is that truly what you're saying?